Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
• B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
• C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
• D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?

• A. Prostaglandin E2
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Methylergonovine
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

4. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

5. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

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