ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who asks about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients with a history of which of the following conditions?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Depression
- D. Migraines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a history of asthma because it can cause bronchospasms due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. By blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, propranolol can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially triggering asthma symptoms and exacerbating respiratory issues. Asthma patients should avoid medications like propranolol that can worsen their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as propranolol is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, depression, or migraines. In fact, propranolol is sometimes used in the treatment of migraines and certain types of glaucoma.
2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
3. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?
- A. Lowered heart rate
- B. Increased myocardial contractility
- C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
- D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.
4. When administering an Antiulcer Agent, you should be more cautious when administering it to:
- A. A healthy 27-year-old patient
- B. Patient with renal failure
- C. Elderly patients
- D. Choices B & C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering an antiulcer agent, caution is warranted in patients with renal failure due to the potential impact on drug metabolism and excretion. Additionally, elderly patients may be more susceptible to adverse effects from antiulcer agents due to age-related physiological changes. Therefore, it is important to be more cautious when administering antiulcer agents to patients with renal failure and elderly patients. Choice A, a healthy 27-year-old patient, would typically not require as much caution compared to patients with renal failure or elderly patients when administering antiulcer agents. Therefore, choices B & C are the correct options for increased caution.
5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
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