Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect to feel drowsy.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.

3. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.

5. While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.

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