Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

3. A client is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a common adverse effect of paclitaxel due to bone marrow suppression. Clients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection and report any symptoms such as fever, chills, or sore throat immediately to their healthcare provider.

4. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

5. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

• A. Exenatide
• B. Naloxone
• C. Heparin
• D. Tolvaptan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

Similar Questions