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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. On the nonoperative side
- C. Sims'
- D. Semi-Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.
2. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Anxiety
- C. Sedation
- D. Palpitations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.
3. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.
4. When reviewing a client's health record, a nurse notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The nurse should identify this as which type of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Standing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A routine prescription indicates medications to be administered on a regular schedule without a termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily falls under a routine prescription, meaning the nurse will administer this medication daily until the provider discontinues it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A 'single' prescription is for a one-time dose, 'stat' prescriptions are for immediate administration, and 'standing' prescriptions are pre-authorized for administration as needed within specified parameters.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
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