a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for fentanyl transdermal patch which of the following instructions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.

2. A client reports using over-the-counter calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct recommendation for taking calcium carbonate antacid is to drink a glass of water after taking the medication. This practice enhances the effectiveness of the antacid by promoting its dissolution and absorption in the stomach, providing relief from symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as calcium carbonate antacid does not typically cause diarrhea. Choice B is inaccurate as taking calcium carbonate with dairy products may decrease its absorption due to the presence of calcium in both sources. Choice C is unrelated to the administration of calcium carbonate antacid.

3. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

4. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

5. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan, and a nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure daily is crucial for clients taking Valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. Valsartan helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, and regular monitoring helps track the medication's effectiveness and any potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valsartan does not need to be taken with food, avoiding potassium-rich foods is not specifically required for this medication, and feeling drowsy is not a common side effect of Valsartan.

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