ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.
2. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
4. When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will:
- A. Increase in size
- B. Decrease in length
- C. Increase in excitability
- D. Increase in number
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in size. Cardiac hypertrophy occurs when myocardial cells increase in size to compensate for an increased workload. This adaptation allows the heart to pump more effectively. Choice B, Decrease in length, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not decrease in length in response to increased workload. Choice C, Increase in excitability, is incorrect as increased workload does not lead to an increase in excitability of cardiac cells. Choice D, Increase in number, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not increase in number but rather increase in size to handle the increased workload.
5. When communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment, which of the following will Nurse Dory use?
- A. Complete explanations with multiple details
- B. Pictures or gestures instead of words
- C. Stimulating words and phrases to capture the client’s attention
- D. Short words and simple sentences
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Dory will use short words and simple sentences when communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment. This approach is effective because it helps improve understanding and comprehension for individuals with cognitive challenges. Choice A is incorrect because complete explanations with multiple details may overwhelm or confuse clients with cognitive impairment. Choice B is not the most effective option as using pictures or gestures instead of words may not always be practical or necessary. Choice C is also not ideal as stimulating words and phrases may cause distraction rather than enhance communication for clients with cognitive impairment.
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