Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.

2. A patient is being treated for active tuberculosis with ethambutol (Myambutol). The patient states to the nurse that he cannot identify the red and green on the traffic lights when he is driving. Based on this finding, what medical intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Assess for photosensitivity.
• B. Discontinue ethambutol (Myambutol).
• C. Decrease the ethambutol (Myambutol) dose.
• D. Administer vitamin B.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for photosensitivity. Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to visual disturbances, including difficulty differentiating red and green colors. This is a sign of optic nerve damage and requires immediate evaluation. Discontinuing ethambutol may be necessary if optic neuritis is confirmed, but this decision should be made by a healthcare provider. Decreasing the dose of ethambutol may not address the visual changes. Administering vitamin B does not directly address the side effect caused by ethambutol.

3. Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

• A. Uncontrolled cell growth
• B. Rapid growth
• C. Metastasis
• D. Invasion of surrounding tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.

4. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

• A. Orally, with food
• B. Orally, on an empty stomach
• C. Intramuscularly
• D. Intravenously, as a bolus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

5. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?

• A. Cardiac stress testing
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Bone density testing
• D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.

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