ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.
2. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
- A. Avoid lying down after taking the medication.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.
3. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
4. What is the primary role of albumin in the blood?
- A. Transport oxygen throughout the body.
- B. Serve as a key clotting factor.
- C. Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance.
- D. Act as an immune response molecule.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure by helping to retain fluid within the blood vessels. This function is essential for regulating blood volume and preventing fluid from leaking out into tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because albumin is not primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, acting as a clotting factor, or functioning as an immune response molecule in the blood.
5. What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?
- A. Adherence to the medication schedule
- B. The possibility of pregnancy
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.
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