a 60 year old man presents with painless hematuria which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation
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Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

2. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

3. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy. Androgen therapy can impact liver function, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests to assess any potential adverse effects on the liver. Renal function tests (choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy and do not need specific monitoring for this treatment. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are more relevant in conditions like diabetes or with medications affecting blood sugar, not typically in androgen therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (choice D) is not directly impacted by androgen therapy and is not a priority for monitoring in this context.

4. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia, which is an increased heart rate, is a classic clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, there is an excess production of thyroid hormones, leading to an increased metabolic rate. This increased metabolism can cause symptoms such as a rapid heart rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, weight gain, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a slower metabolic rate.

5. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

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