a 60 year old man presents with painless hematuria which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation
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Nursing Elites

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Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

2. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.

3. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

4. Which of the following are manifestations of Cushing syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Truncal obesity with thin extremities is a classic manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to the redistribution of fat. Enlargement of face, hands, and feet is seen in conditions like acromegaly, not Cushing syndrome. Cachexia is a state of severe weight loss and muscle wasting, typically seen in conditions like cancer or advanced infections. Thick scalp hair is not typically associated with Cushing syndrome.

5. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.

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