Nursing Elites

1. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy in a male patient?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. This is why nurses should monitor for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues during therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures. It is crucial for nurses to prioritize cardiovascular monitoring in patients receiving testosterone therapy.

2. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?

• A. Chest pain; cough
• B. Diarrhea; wheezing
• C. Wheezing; dyspnea
• D. Tachypnea; constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.

4. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?

• A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
• B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
• C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
• D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.

5. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

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