Nursing Elites

1. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

2. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?

• A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
• B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
• C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
• D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.

3. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Nephrotoxicity
• C. Cardiotoxicity
• D. Pulmonary toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

4. A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?

• A. Intramuscularly
• B. Subcutaneously
• C. Intravenously
• D. Orally

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate route to administer an immunization containing aluminum phosphate is intramuscularly. Aluminum phosphate is commonly used as an adjuvant in vaccines to enhance the immune response. Intramuscular administration allows for the vaccine to be delivered into the muscle tissue, where it can be effectively absorbed by the body's immune cells. Subcutaneous administration is not ideal for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate, as it may not elicit the desired immune response. Intravenous administration is typically reserved for specific medications or situations that require rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Oral administration is not suitable for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate as they would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract.

5. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:

• A. excessive sedation
• B. bowel ischemia
• C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
• D. mild hypothermia postoperatively

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.

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