ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
- B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
- C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
- D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.
2. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
3. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
- B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
- C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
- D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.
4. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?
- A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
- B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions. It is crucial for patients to be informed about this to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that immediate protection is conferred, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.
5. Macular degeneration occurs as a result of:
- A. loss of lens accommodation
- B. detachment of the retina
- C. increased intraocular pressure
- D. impaired blood supply leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, a part of the retina responsible for central vision. It is primarily caused by impaired blood supply to the macula, leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia. This results in the death of photoreceptor cells and ultimately vision loss. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because macular degeneration is not related to the loss of lens accommodation, detachment of the retina, or increased intraocular pressure. The correct answer directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of macular degeneration.
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