Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
• B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
• C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
• D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

• A. Does your son experience nausea or vomiting when he has a headache?
• B. Does your son have a history of recent head injury?
• C. Does your son become sensitive to light when he has a headache?
• D. Does anyone in your family have a history of migraines?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.

3. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.

4. What therapeutic effect is expected from tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• C. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.' Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that specifically targets alpha-1 receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, causing relaxation of smooth muscles. This relaxation results in improved urinary flow and reduced symptoms of BPH. Choice B is incorrect because while tamsulosin does improve urinary flow, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because tamsulosin does not reduce prostate size. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin does not have a primary effect on erectile function.

5. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?

• A. They are considered a normal variant.
• B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
• C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
• D. They are associated with aging.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.

Similar Questions