Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
• B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
• C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
• D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

2. A female patient is taking combined hormonal contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. She visits the gynecology clinic and is noted to have a blood pressure of 176/102 mm Hg. The patient is started on enalapril mesylate 10 mg. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what other patient teaching should be provided based on her current medication regimen?

• A. Instruct on a low-salt diet.
• B. Instruct to discontinue the contraceptives.
• C. Instruct on the use of relaxation techniques to decrease stress.
• D. Instruct on the rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Women on hormonal contraceptives and antihypertensives like enalapril should be counseled to adopt a low-salt diet if severe hypertension occurs. This dietary modification can help in managing blood pressure levels. Instructing to discontinue the contraceptives is crucial in cases of severe hypertension as it poses an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Instructing on relaxation techniques may have some benefits in reducing stress levels but addressing the root cause, such as discontinuing contraceptives in this scenario, is more critical. There is no rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose when hypertension is present; in fact, it should be stopped to prevent complications.

3. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:

• A. psychotherapy.
• B. total abstinence.
• C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA).
• D. aversion therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: total abstinence. Total abstinence from alcohol is considered the most effective treatment for alcoholism. This approach eliminates the risk of relapse and helps individuals maintain sobriety. While psychotherapy can be beneficial in addressing underlying issues, total abstinence is crucial in overcoming alcohol addiction. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a supportive group that can complement treatment, but it is not the only effective approach. Aversion therapy aims to create a negative association with alcohol but may not address the underlying causes of addiction, making total abstinence a more comprehensive and recommended approach.

4. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?

• A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
• C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
• D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.

5. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to

• A. sexual arousal.
• B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
• C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
• D. decreased cortisol levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.

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