ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. A dental hygienist finds several new carious lesions in a patient with chronic obstructive respiratory disease (COPD). While conducting the medical and dental histories, the dental hygienist is most likely to find an increased use of which of the following?
- A. Protein
- B. Cough drops
- C. Fluoride
- D. Xylitol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cough drops. Patients with COPD often use cough drops to manage their symptoms, which can lead to an increase in carious lesions due to their sugar content. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as protein, fluoride, and xylitol are not typically associated with an increased risk of carious lesions in patients with COPD.
2. Mang Caloy is scheduled to have a hemorrhoidectomy, after the operation, you would expect that the client’s position post operatively will be:
- A. Knee chest position
- B. Side lying position
- C. Sims position
- D. Genopectoral position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
3. You are a researcher testing out the effects of a new food molecule—MEGA—on bone health. In order to know if it actually travels to bone cells in the body, you first need to find out if it gets absorbed in the bloodstream. You eat a food containing MEGA, and you measure the molecule in your urine and feces. You only detect MEGA in the feces. Was MEGA absorbed?
- A. No—absorbed compounds show up in urine, not feces
- B. Yes—absorbed compounds show up in feces, not urine
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If MEGA was only detected in feces and not in urine, it was not absorbed into the bloodstream. Absorbed compounds typically appear in urine after processing by the body. The correct answer is A because the presence of a compound in feces indicates that it was not absorbed by the body and passed through the digestive system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the process of absorption and excretion in the body.
4. What is a likely effect on a patient whose lab results reveal hypoalbuminemia?
- A. Infection
- B. Rickets
- C. Hypertension
- D. Edema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoalbuminemia, which refers to low albumin levels in the blood, is often associated with edema. Albumin helps maintain oncotic pressure, which keeps fluid within blood vessels. When albumin levels are low, this pressure decreases, leading to fluid leakage from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. The other choices are less likely effects of hypoalbuminemia. Hypoalbuminemia doesn't directly cause infections (Choice A), rickets (Choice B) caused by vitamin D deficiency, or hypertension (Choice C) associated with factors like high sodium intake, obesity, and genetic predisposition.
5. The nurse is planning education about appropriate protein food choices for a client who has recently been prescribed a renal diet. Which protein food items should the nurse include in the education?
- A. Yogurt, seeds, and lentils
- B. Beef, bacon, and nuts
- C. Peanut butter, beans, and peas
- D. Poultry, eggs, and fish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Poultry, eggs, and fish. These protein sources are high-quality proteins suitable for a renal diet as they provide essential amino acids without excessive amounts of potassium or phosphorus. Choice A, yogurt, seeds, and lentils, may be high in potassium and phosphorus, which could be restricted in a renal diet. Choice B, beef, bacon, and nuts, are also high in phosphorus and may not be ideal for a renal diet. Choice C, peanut butter, beans, and peas, are high in potassium and phosphorus, making them less suitable for a renal diet.
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