ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. A dental hygienist finds several new carious lesions in a patient with chronic obstructive respiratory disease (COPD). While conducting the medical and dental histories, the dental hygienist is most likely to find an increased use of which of the following?
- A. Protein
- B. Cough drops
- C. Fluoride
- D. Xylitol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cough drops. Patients with COPD often use cough drops to manage their symptoms, which can lead to an increase in carious lesions due to their sugar content. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as protein, fluoride, and xylitol are not typically associated with an increased risk of carious lesions in patients with COPD.
2. The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:
- A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
- B. Vomiting
- C. Periorbital edema
- D. A positive Kernig's sign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.
3. Which of the following conditions is not caused by energy drinks?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Seizures
- D. Dental caries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Energy drinks are known for causing a variety of health issues, including nervousness, seizures, and an increased risk of dental caries due to their high sugar content. However, they do not cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Instead, energy drinks are associated with causing an increased or rapid heart rate, known as tachycardia. Therefore, out of the listed options, bradycardia is the condition not caused by energy drinks.
4. A client is planning eating strategies with a nurse who has nausea from equilibrium imbalance. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to eat, even if nauseated.
- B. Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals.
- C. Limit fluid intake between meals.
- D. Serve hot foods at mealtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals. Low-fat carbohydrates are easier to digest and can help manage nausea without overloading the digestive system. Encouraging the client to eat even if nauseated (Choice A) may worsen their symptoms. Limiting fluid intake between meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which can exacerbate nausea. Serving hot foods at mealtime (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying issue of equilibrium imbalance causing nausea.
5. Which of the following actions are individuals with loss of smell NOT inclined to do?
- A. Use more spices in their food
- B. Eat less food
- C. Eat and drink more sweets
- D. Lose weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Individuals with a loss of smell are typically inclined to eat less because the enjoyment of food is diminished due to the lack of taste. However, they may compensate for this loss by consuming more sweets or using more spices. Therefore, they are less inclined to lose weight because of the increased consumption of sweets and spices, not because they eat less. Choice 'A' is incorrect because individuals with loss of smell often use more spices to enhance the taste of their food. Choice 'B' is incorrect as they may indeed eat less due to the diminished enjoyment of food. Choice 'C' is also incorrect as they tend to eat and drink more sweets to compensate for their loss of taste.
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