Nursing Elites

1. A dental hygienist finds several new carious lesions in a patient with chronic obstructive respiratory disease (COPD). While conducting the medical and dental histories, the dental hygienist is most likely to find an increased use of which of the following?

• A. Protein
• B. Cough drops
• C. Fluoride
• D. Xylitol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cough drops. Patients with COPD often use cough drops to manage their symptoms, which can lead to an increase in carious lesions due to their sugar content. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as protein, fluoride, and xylitol are not typically associated with an increased risk of carious lesions in patients with COPD.

2. Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit. The earliest signs of transfusion reactions are:

• A. Oliguria and jaundice
• B. Urticaria and wheezing
• C. Headache, chills, & fever
• D. Hypertension and flushing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. What is the primary purpose of dietary fiber in the diet?

• A. Improving digestion
• B. Providing energy
• C. Aiding in the absorption of vitamins
• D. Reducing cholesterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of dietary fiber in the diet is to reduce cholesterol levels. While it does aid in digestion by promoting regular bowel movements, its main role is in lowering cholesterol. Choice A is partially correct but not the primary purpose. Choice B is incorrect as fiber is not a direct source of energy. Choice C is also incorrect as the primary role of fiber is not in the absorption of vitamins.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

• A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
• B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
• C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
• D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

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