a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving anticoagulant therapy which complication should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

2. The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neutrophils are the correct answer as they are the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites. Neutrophils are part of the body's innate immune system and are among the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection. They play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. Macrophages, although important phagocytes, usually arrive later at the site. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and not primarily phagocytes. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are not the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory sites.

3. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

4. A patient is taking alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water and the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication before bed increases the risk of esophageal irritation and reduces absorption due to lying down. Choice D is also incorrect because taking alendronate with milk or other calcium-rich foods can decrease its absorption.

5. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased platelet cell count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count, is not typically associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice C, an increased red blood cell count, is not a characteristic finding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D, an increased platelet cell count, is the opposite of what is observed in thrombocytopenia.

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