a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving anticoagulant therapy which complication should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

2. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. What is a key point the nurse should include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, typically 30 minutes to an hour before breakfast, to ensure proper absorption. Taking it with food, calcium supplements, or grapefruit juice can interfere with its absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with calcium supplements can reduce its effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because grapefruit juice can also interfere with levothyroxine absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with food can decrease its absorption.

3. In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rh antigen. In addition to ABO antigens, Rh antigen must also be matched for a blood transfusion. Rh antigen compatibility is crucial to prevent adverse reactions. Choice A, HLA type, is not directly related to blood transfusions but plays a role in organ transplantation. Choice C, Immunoglobulins, are not typically matched for blood transfusions. Choice D, Platelet compatibility, while important in specific cases, is not a standard requirement for all blood transfusions.

4. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

5. In a postmenopausal woman, what condition can be prevented by administering estradiol (Estraderm)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Estradiol, a form of estrogen, is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by maintaining bone density. Choice A, Endometriosis, is incorrect as estradiol is not used to prevent or treat this condition. Choice B, Amenorrhea, is not prevented by estradiol but rather may result from hormonal changes. Choice D, Uterine cancer, is not directly prevented by estradiol; in fact, long-term unopposed estrogen use can increase the risk of uterine cancer.

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