Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Hematocrit of 39%
• C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
• D. AST level of 10 Unit/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.

2. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

3. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

4. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

5. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

Similar Questions