ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
- B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
- C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
- D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
2. When does pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsen?
- A. with rest because blood flow decreases.
- B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
- C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
- D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away from the affected area, leading to decreased perfusion and exacerbation of symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because resting, dependent position, and touch/massage do not typically worsen the pain associated with peripheral artery disease.
3. A client is admitted with a suspected aortic dissection. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain blood pressure.
- D. Monitor the client's urine output closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that often necessitates immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority over surgical intervention. While maintaining blood pressure with intravenous fluids (choice C) is important, the urgent need for surgery takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is essential for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this critical situation.
4. Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?
- A. The client will complete activities of daily living.
- B. The client will maintain safety.
- C. The client will remain oriented.
- D. The client will understand communication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.
5. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
- A. Active tuberculosis
- B. Latent tuberculosis
- C. Mycobacterium avium complex
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.
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