a 37 year old woman has just experienced the end of a long term relationship and has expressed a desire to begin using oral contraceptives what aspect
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.

2. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.

3. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

4. Peritonitis is a condition that can result in serious complications. Identify one of the complications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Peritonitis can lead to severe complications such as sepsis and shock due to the infection spreading in the abdominal cavity. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, and shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs are not receiving enough blood flow. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased peristalsis is not a typical complication of peritonitis; dizziness and malaise, as well as nausea and vomiting, are symptoms rather than complications of the condition.

5. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.

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