Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?

• A. Apply a painful stimulus to see if the client pulls away.
• B. Check for pupil response to light.
• C. Assess the client's response to verbal commands.
• D. Observe the client's reaction to a cold stimulus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.

3. Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Homan's sign?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis
• B. Peripheral artery disease
• C. Varicose veins
• D. Lymphedema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Homan's sign is indicative of deep vein thrombosis. This sign is elicited by dorsiflexing the foot of a patient with the knee slightly flexed, resulting in calf pain. Peripheral artery disease (choice B) is associated with decreased blood flow to the extremities, but it does not produce a positive Homan's sign. Varicose veins (choice C) are enlarged, twisted veins that are typically not related to Homan's sign. Lymphedema (choice D) is swelling caused by a lymphatic system blockage or dysfunction and is not linked to Homan's sign.

4. A 20-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic seeking to begin oral contraceptive therapy. The nurse has recognized the need for adequate health education related to the patient's request. The nurse should emphasize the fact that successful prevention of pregnancy depends primarily on the patient's

• A. current health status.
• B. vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.
• C. knowledge of sexual health.
• D. risk factors for adverse effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.' When initiating oral contraceptive therapy, the success of preventing pregnancy relies heavily on the patient's commitment to following the prescribed regimen consistently. Compliance with taking the oral contraceptives as directed is crucial for their effectiveness. Choice A, 'current health status,' is not the primary factor for successful prevention of pregnancy with oral contraceptives. Choice C, 'knowledge of sexual health,' while important, is not the primary determinant of contraceptive efficacy. Choice D, 'risk factors for adverse effects,' though relevant for monitoring and managing side effects, is not the primary focus for ensuring contraceptive success.

5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

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