Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

2. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Melanoma
• C. Atopic dermatitis
• D. Urticaria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.

3. A female client with bone metastases secondary to lung cancer is admitted for palliative radiation treatment and pain control. The client is currently experiencing pain that she rates at 9 out of 10. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?

• A. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation
• B. Initiating neurostimulation
• C. Heat therapy
• D. Relaxation and distraction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.

4. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

5. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
• B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
• C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
• D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

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