Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

2. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:

• A. psychotherapy.
• B. total abstinence.
• C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA).
• D. aversion therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: total abstinence. Total abstinence from alcohol is considered the most effective treatment for alcoholism. This approach eliminates the risk of relapse and helps individuals maintain sobriety. While psychotherapy can be beneficial in addressing underlying issues, total abstinence is crucial in overcoming alcohol addiction. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a supportive group that can complement treatment, but it is not the only effective approach. Aversion therapy aims to create a negative association with alcohol but may not address the underlying causes of addiction, making total abstinence a more comprehensive and recommended approach.

3. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?

• A. The kidneys remove hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate ions.
• B. The kidneys convert ammonia into urea, which is excreted in the urine.
• C. The kidneys produce aldosterone to regulate sodium levels.
• D. The kidneys secrete renin to regulate blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

4. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast to improve absorption.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase its effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Atorvastatin, like other statins, is more effective when taken in the evening as the body produces more cholesterol at night. Taking it with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it may reduce the drug's absorption. Grapefruit juice (choice B) should be avoided with atorvastatin as it can increase the risk of side effects. Taking the medication in the morning with breakfast (choice C) is not as effective as taking it at night.

5. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?

• A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
• B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
• C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.

Similar Questions