Nursing Elites

1. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

2. A 67-year-old man is receiving androgen therapy for osteoporosis. What laboratory test should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Cholesterol levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction. Androgens can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to monitor enzymes such as ALT and AST. While blood glucose levels and cholesterol levels are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the primary focus during androgen therapy for osteoporosis. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) monitoring is more relevant in the context of prostate health and cancer screening, not specifically during androgen therapy for osteoporosis.

3. A family member expresses concern to a nurse about behavioral changes in an elderly aunt. Which would cause the nurse to suspect a cognitive impairment disorder?

• A. Decreased interest in activities that she once enjoyed
• B. Fear of being alone at night
• C. Increased complaints of physical ailments
• D. Problems with preparing a meal or balancing her checkbook

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Problems with tasks like meal preparation and balancing a checkbook can indicate cognitive impairment, as these activities involve cognitive functions such as memory, attention, and executive function. Choices A, B, and C are less indicative of cognitive impairment. Decreased interest in activities and increased complaints of physical ailments may be related to other factors like depression, while fear of being alone at night could be due to anxiety or other psychological issues.

4. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Oral contraceptives can cause weight loss and increased energy levels.
• B. Oral contraceptives can cause increased appetite and weight gain.
• C. Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.
• D. Oral contraceptives have no side effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.

5. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. An autoimmune disorder
• B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
• C. An increase in intracranial pressure
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.

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