a client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism the clients most recent partial thromboplastin time ptt was 25 seconds what order sho
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

2. A patient is receiving discharge instructions after experiencing a stroke. Which instruction is most important for preventing another stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, and controlling blood pressure through medication is crucial in preventing recurrent strokes. While physical therapy, diet, and follow-up appointments are also important aspects of post-stroke care, managing hypertension with medication takes precedence due to its direct impact on stroke prevention.

3. A healthcare professional is auscultating the lungs of a client who has pleurisy. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the professional expect to hear?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleurisy, the healthcare professional should expect to hear loud, scratchy sounds. These sounds are characteristic of pleurisy, which is an inflammation of the pleura, causing a rough, grating sound during breathing.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

5. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

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