Nursing Elites

1. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

2. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

3. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.

4. A healthcare worker is caring for a group of clients in an infectious disease unit. The worker should wear an OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask when caring for a client with which of the following infectious diseases?

• A. Pertussis
• B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Respiratory syncytial virus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask is recommended when caring for a client with tuberculosis due to the airborne transmission of the disease. Tuberculosis poses a higher risk of transmission via respiratory droplets, making respiratory protection essential to prevent exposure and infection among healthcare workers.

5. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before each dose.
• B. Inspect your mouth for lesions daily.
• C. Do not use this medication to relieve an acute attack.
• D. Do not skip the morning dose even if symptom-free.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

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