ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?
- A. It means it is caused by another disease.
- B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
- C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
- D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.
2. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)
- A. Production of pink sputum
- B. Tracheal deviation
- C. Pain at insertion site
- D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.
3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Decrease the heparin rate.
- B. Increase the heparin rate.
- C. No change to the heparin rate.
- D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?
- A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
- B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6� C (97.8� F) to 37� C (98.6� F)
- C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
- D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.
5. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?
- A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
- B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
- C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
- D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.
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