Nursing Elites

1. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

• A. Confusion
• B. Weakness
• C. Increased intracranial pressure
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.

3. A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?

• A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
• B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
• C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
• D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats & red meat, high in vegetables & whole grains (fiber), low in salt, & low in trans-fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli & tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat & the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat & no vegetables.

4. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

Similar Questions