Nursing Elites

1. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?

• A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
• B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
• C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
• D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most commonly associated with this condition?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are commonly associated with left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Left-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli, which results in the characteristic crackling sound upon auscultation.

3. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
• B. WBC 16,000/mm3
• C. Negative throat culture
• D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the healthcare provider that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
• C. Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
• D. Equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber indicates proper functioning of the chest tube. This fluctuation reflects the normal ebb and flow of air and fluid in the pleural space, demonstrating that the system is maintaining the appropriate pressure. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, absence of fluid in the drainage tubing suggests a blockage, and equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber are not expected in this system.

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