Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

2. During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dysphagia
• C. Agitation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.

3. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client has been NPO for 6 hours before the procedure.
• B. Administer pre-procedure medications as ordered.
• C. Verify that informed consent has been obtained.
• D. Assess the client for any allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client for allergies, particularly to iodine or shellfish, is crucial before a cardiac catheterization because the contrast dye used during the procedure can lead to allergic reactions. Identifying any allergies beforehand allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to prevent potential adverse reactions and ensure the client's safety.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer pain medication as ordered.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Place the client in a supine position.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.

5. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

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