Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any numbness or tingling in extremities.
• D. Have liver function tests done regularly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

2. A client has a newly inserted chest drainage system with a water seal. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Clamp the tube when the client is ambulating.
• B. Keep the collection device below the level of the client's chest.
• C. Carefully coil the tubes to prevent kinking.
• D. Position the client flat to avoid leaks in the tubing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the collection device below the level of the client's chest ensures proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid into the patient's chest. This position allows gravity to assist in the drainage process. Clamping the tube when the client is ambulating can cause a buildup of pressure in the chest drainage system, potentially leading to complications. Carefully coiling the tubes is important to prevent obstructions and kinks that could impede the flow of drainage. Positioning the client flat may not be ideal as it could hinder proper drainage and increase the risk of leaks in the tubing.

3. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

4. A client with a pleural effusion is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion of the affected side
• C. Increased tactile fremitus on the affected side
• D. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pleural effusion, decreased breath sounds on the affected side are common due to the presence of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is not expected; dullness on percussion is more likely. Tactile fremitus is typically decreased, not increased, in pleural effusion cases. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, not toward it, can be seen with large effusions.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
• B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
• C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
• D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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