Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

• A. Avoid taking over-the-counter antacids while on this medication.
• B. This medication may decrease libido.
• C. This medication may take several months to improve symptoms.
• D. This medication may cause increased hair growth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.

2. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

• A. Sideroblastic anemia
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Pernicious anemia
• D. Iron deficiency anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

3. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. BPH
• C. Chronic renal failure
• D. Type 2 diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

4. Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? ________is/are a secondary lymph organ.

• A. The spleen
• B. Peyer's patches
• C. Adenoids
• D. The liver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'The liver.' The liver is not a secondary lymph organ. Secondary lymph organs are primarily involved in the immune response, such as the spleen, Peyer's patches, and adenoids. The spleen filters blood and is essential for immune function. Peyer's patches are located in the small intestine and help protect against pathogens. Adenoids are located in the throat and play a role in immune defense. Therefore, the liver is the incorrect choice as it is not part of the secondary lymph organ system.

5. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis
• B. hypercortisolism
• C. ACTH stimulation
• D. thyroid crisis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.

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