Nursing Elites

1. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

• A. Alive, but less infectious
• B. Mutated, but highly infectious
• C. Normal, but not infectious
• D. Inactive, but infectious

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

2. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

• A. Anemia
• B. Recurrent infections
• C. Hypersensitivity
• D. Autoantibody production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

3. What is the primary role of albumin in the blood?

• A. Transport oxygen throughout the body.
• B. Serve as a key clotting factor.
• C. Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance.
• D. Act as an immune response molecule.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure by helping to retain fluid within the blood vessels. This function is essential for regulating blood volume and preventing fluid from leaking out into tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because albumin is not primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, acting as a clotting factor, or functioning as an immune response molecule in the blood.

4. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• B. Increased risk of hot flashes
• C. Increased risk of cataracts
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.

5. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?

• A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
• B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
• C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
• D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.

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