Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child's parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?

• A. Desensitized
• B. Atopic
• C. Hyperactive
• D. Autoimmune

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the correct term to classify the child is 'Atopic.' Atopic individuals have a genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions, as seen in this patient with a family history of allergies. 'Desensitized' refers to reduced sensitivity to an allergen, which is not the case here. 'Hyperactive' relates to an exaggerated response, and 'Autoimmune' involves the immune system attacking its own cells, neither of which accurately describes the child's classification based on the provided history.

2. Which of the following is a cause of hypothyroidism?

• A. Overproduction of cortisol
• B. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
• C. Overactivity of the thyroid gland
• D. Insufficient iodine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones to meet the body's needs. This can be due to autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland, where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid tissue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Overproduction of cortisol is associated with conditions like Cushing's syndrome, overactivity of the thyroid gland is a characteristic of hyperthyroidism, and insufficient iodine intake can lead to goiter but not necessarily hypothyroidism.

3. A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?

• A. Merkel cell
• B. Schwann cell
• C. Reed-Sternberg cell
• D. Kupffer cell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma. These large abnormal cells have a bi-lobed or multi-lobed nucleus and are essential for diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma through histological examination. Merkel cells are associated with Merkel cell carcinoma, Schwann cells are related to nerve sheaths, and Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?

• A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
• B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
• C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
• D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.

5. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

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