Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child's parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?

• A. Desensitized
• B. Atopic
• C. Hyperactive
• D. Autoimmune

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the correct term to classify the child is 'Atopic.' Atopic individuals have a genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions, as seen in this patient with a family history of allergies. 'Desensitized' refers to reduced sensitivity to an allergen, which is not the case here. 'Hyperactive' relates to an exaggerated response, and 'Autoimmune' involves the immune system attacking its own cells, neither of which accurately describes the child's classification based on the provided history.

2. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy
• B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.

3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

4. What aspect of this woman's current health status would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. The woman has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
• B. The woman has asthma and uses inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators.
• C. The woman has a family history of breast cancer.
• D. The woman takes an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Women with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk of developing cardiovascular complications. Oral contraceptives further increase this risk due to their potential effects on blood pressure, lipid metabolism, and clotting factors. Choice B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids and bronchodilators do not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as a family history of breast cancer does not directly contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D is also incorrect as taking an antiplatelet medication for coronary artery disease does not necessarily contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.

5. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

Similar Questions