Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

2. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?

• A. White blood cell levels with differential
• B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
• C. Urea and creatinine levels
• D. Liver function panel

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

• A. “Take your pill on the same day each week.”
• B. “Watch out for any unusual rash on your trunk and arms, but this isn't cause for concern.”
• C. “Remember to take your chloroquine on an empty stomach.”
• D. “We'll provide you with enough syringes and teach you how to inject the drug.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

4. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

5. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

Similar Questions