a male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism what adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

2. Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?

A. Increased blood coagulation
B. Increased platelet production
C. Increased number of infections
D. Decreased platelet production

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a disorder characterized by a decreased platelet count or decreased platelet production, which affects blood clotting. Choice A, 'Increased blood coagulation,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is associated with decreased platelets, leading to impaired clotting. Choice B, 'Increased platelet production,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelet production. Choice C, 'Increased number of infections,' is unrelated to thrombocytopenia, which primarily involves low platelet levels.

3. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms?

A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are aware of the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it has been linked to an increased risk of this condition. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT may have positive effects on mood and energy levels for some individuals, the focus here is on the long-term risks that need to be addressed. Choice D is incorrect as HRT is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, but the primary focus of the question is on cardiovascular events and breast cancer.

4. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

A. Sideroblastic anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
B. negative for estrogen receptor.
C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.