ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.
2. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
3. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?
- A. Golgi tendon reflex
- B. Myotatic reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.
4. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
5. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to a bacterial infection. They are phagocytes that engulf and destroy bacteria, playing a crucial role in the early stages of the immune response. Eosinophils are primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Leukotrienes are signaling molecules that contribute to inflammation and immune responses, but they are not cells. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that differentiates into macrophages and dendritic cells, playing a role in immune response but not as immediate as neutrophils.
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