a male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism what adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

2. A patient is being treated with finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What expected outcome should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, leading to decreased urinary frequency and urgency over several weeks or months. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is associated with another medication called minoxidil, not finasteride. Choice D is incorrect since finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

3. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.

4. A client with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. The nurse should suspect which condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is often associated with a chronic cough and shortness of breath, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Pulmonary fibrosis (choice A) typically presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough. Lung cancer (choice C) may present with a chronic cough, shortness of breath, and other symptoms like weight loss and hemoptysis. Pulmonary edema (choice D) presents with symptoms such as acute shortness of breath, orthopnea, and pink, frothy sputum.

5. A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.

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