a nurse is teaching a client who is taking sucralfate po for peptic ulcer disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

2. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

3. A client has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate first when administering Morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening adverse effect of this medication. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory distress early and take prompt action to ensure the client's safety. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are also important but not as critical as monitoring respiratory rate when initiating Morphine therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

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