a nurse working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose which of the following actions is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.

2. A toddler is being admitted to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of Acetaminophen overdose, acetylcysteine is the antidote of choice. Acetylcysteine helps prevent liver damage by replenishing depleted glutathione levels, which is essential for detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, Misoprostol is a medication for preventing stomach ulcers, and Naltrexone is used for treating opioid addiction and alcoholism, but none of these are indicated for Acetaminophen overdose.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for Vitamin B12 injections. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.' Clients with conditions like pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may require lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation to prevent deficiency. This is because their bodies are unable to absorb B12 from dietary sources adequately, necessitating ongoing injections to maintain optimal B12 levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A full glass of water is not necessary for Vitamin B12 injections. Metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of Vitamin B12 injections, and there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products specifically in relation to Vitamin B12 injections.

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