ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Lovastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication in the morning.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Lovastatin is to take it at bedtime. Cholesterol production in the liver is highest at night, so taking Lovastatin at bedtime aligns with the body's natural rhythm and maximizes its effectiveness.
2. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken?
- A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
- B. Administer before meals with water
- C. Administer after meals with water
- D. Administer in the morning with milk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to take oral albuterol is with meals to minimize gastric irritation. Taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset that may occur when the medication is taken on an empty stomach. This approach can improve tolerability and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, after meals, or in the morning with milk does not address the issue of minimizing gastric irritation, which is a common side effect of the medication.
3. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Ranolazine
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare provider should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?
- A. Cardiovascular
- B. Immune
- C. Central nervous
- D. Gastrointestinal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system, such as typical antipsychotic medications. These effects can lead to symptoms like tremors, muscle rigidity, and involuntary movements, which are all related to disruptions in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because extrapyramidal effects are specifically associated with the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.
5. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.
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