ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer a concentrated solution.
- B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
- C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
- D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
2. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Visual disturbances
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.
3. A client has a new prescription for colchicine to treat gout. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with food if nausea develops.
- B. Monitor for muscle pain.
- C. Expect to have increased bruising.
- D. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial when taking colchicine because it can lead to rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition characterized by muscle breakdown. This adverse effect needs prompt identification to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking colchicine with food, experiencing increased bruising, or increasing grapefruit juice intake are not relevant instructions for a client prescribed colchicine for gout.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
5. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
- A. H
- B. ACE inhibitor
- C. Antifungal
- D. Beta agonist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
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