ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer a concentrated solution.
- B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
- C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
- D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
2. A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:
- A. Bronchial asthma
- B. Contact dermatitis
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sickness. Serum sickness is characterized by the formation of immune complexes in response to certain medications or proteins. These immune complexes can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Bronchial asthma (Choice A) is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways not primarily mediated by immune complexes. Contact dermatitis (Choice B) is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, not immune complexes. Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disease where antibodies target self-antigens, but it is not primarily mediated by immune complexes.
3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.
4. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
5. A client is receiving treatment with irinotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Irinotecan is known to commonly cause diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of diarrhea while receiving this treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because irinotecan is not typically associated with hypertension, ototoxicity, or neutropenia as primary adverse effects. While these side effects can occur with other medications, they are not the main concerns when monitoring a client receiving irinotecan.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99