Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer a concentrated solution.
• B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
• C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
• D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

2. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

3. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

• A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
• C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
• D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

4. A client is starting therapy with Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action in slowing down the heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases to prevent complications related to bradycardia.

5. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the infusion.
• B. Call the provider.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Auscultate breath sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

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