ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Ramelteon and is receiving teaching from a nurse. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?
- A. Baked potato
- B. Fried chicken
- C. Whole-grain bread
- D. Citrus fruits
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fried chicken. High-fat foods like fried chicken can prolong the absorption of Ramelteon, potentially reducing its effectiveness. It is important to avoid such foods to ensure the medication works as intended.
2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.
3. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken?
- A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
- B. Administer before meals with water
- C. Administer after meals with water
- D. Administer in the morning with milk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to take oral albuterol is with meals to minimize gastric irritation. Taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset that may occur when the medication is taken on an empty stomach. This approach can improve tolerability and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, after meals, or in the morning with milk does not address the issue of minimizing gastric irritation, which is a common side effect of the medication.
4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.
5. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.
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