ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client monitor for and report to the provider?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Pedal edema
- C. Bruising
- D. Yellow-tinged vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yellow-tinged vision. Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of Digoxin and may indicate toxicity. Clients should be instructed to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent complications. Dry cough (choice A) is not typically associated with Digoxin. Pedal edema (choice B) is more commonly seen with heart failure but is not a direct adverse effect of Digoxin. Bruising (choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Digoxin.
2. A client is to receive Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
- B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
- C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. This is important to prevent aspiration until the client's normal pharyngeal sensation is restored, typically within about 1 hour after the procedure. Monitoring the insertion site for a hematoma, palpating the bladder, and maintaining the client on bed rest are not directly related to the administration of Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Therefore, these actions are not necessary in the immediate post-procedure care of a client receiving Tetracaine for a Bronchoscopy.
3. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
- B. I should increase my water intake.
- C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
- D. I should take this medication with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.
4. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?
- A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
- B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
- C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
- D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.
5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
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