a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting repaglinide which of the following statements by the clien
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

3. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

4. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide, being a diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by enhancing potassium excretion. Increasing consumption of potassium-rich foods like bananas or oranges can help prevent hypokalemia and maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is not a specific instruction related to hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding sun exposure is more relevant for photosensitive medications, not hydrochlorothiazide. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.

5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.

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