Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

2. A client is prescribed Propranolol for a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Hold Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min.
• B. Administer Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assist the client with sitting up or standing after taking this medication.
• D. Monitor the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol is to assist the client when sitting up or standing after taking the medication. Propranolol can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness upon sudden position changes. It is essential to help the client with position changes to prevent falls or injury. Holding Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min (Choice A) is incorrect because Propranolol is often used to manage dysrhythmias and slowing down the heart rate. Administering Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is not the primary indication for using this medication. Monitoring the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity (Choice D) is not a direct effect of Propranolol; rather, it is more related to other medications like diuretics.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.

4. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.

5. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

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