Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

• A. Urine output
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate first when administering Morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening adverse effect of this medication. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory distress early and take prompt action to ensure the client's safety. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are also important but not as critical as monitoring respiratory rate when initiating Morphine therapy.

3. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

4. When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leg cramps
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hot flashes. When initiating therapy with raloxifene, clients should be advised to monitor for hot flashes as they are a common adverse effect associated with this medication. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of raloxifene due to its action on estrogen receptors. Leg cramps (Choice A), urinary frequency (Choice C), and hair loss (Choice D) are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, monitoring for hot flashes is crucial to manage and address this common side effect appropriately.

5. A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Headache
• B. Nausea
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly. Headache, nausea, and diarrhea are common side effects of atorvastatin and do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

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