ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.
2. Cindy tells her daughter, “I know you can do a good job on that homework†because she believes that if she encourages persistence, her daughter will start to view herself as hardworking and high-achieving. Cindy is applying the __________ approach.
- A. behavior modification
- B. psychosocial
- C. cognitive-developmental
- D. social-cognitive Answer: D Page Ref: 17 Skill Level: Apply Topic: Mid-Twentieth-Century Theories Difficulty Level: Difficult
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cindy is applying the social-cognitive approach by encouraging her daughter to believe in her own abilities and persist in her efforts. This approach emphasizes the importance of social influences and cognitive processes in shaping behavior. By providing positive reinforcement and fostering a belief in her daughter's capabilities, Cindy is helping to shape her daughter's self-perception and motivation to achieve success.
3. What are stressful occurrences referred to as?
- A. Health deficit
- B. Health threats
- C. Health need
- D. Foreseeable crisis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stressful occurrences are known as foreseeable crises. These are situations that can be anticipated or expected to bring about stress or challenges.
4. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
- B. Daily physical therapy activities.
- C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.
5. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
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