ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
- B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
- C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
- D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.
2. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Mexiletine
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Quinidine
- D. Procainamide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.
3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.
4. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C of 7.5%
- B. Creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
- C. BUN level of 18 mg/dL
- D. Liver function tests showing AST of 50 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.
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