Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
• D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client about the adverse effects of Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Lactic acidosis.
• B. Hypoglycemia.
• C. Hyperlipidemia.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but severe side effect of Metformin, particularly in individuals with renal or liver issues. It is crucial for clients taking Metformin to be aware of the symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, stomach discomfort, and feeling cold. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Metformin but can occur when combined with other antidiabetic medications. Choice C, hyperlipidemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Metformin. Choice D, weight gain, is not associated with Metformin use; in fact, Metformin is often associated with weight loss or weight neutrality.

3. A client is taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity?

• A. Light yellow urine
• B. Report of tinnitus
• C. Productive cough
• D. Blue-gray skin discoloration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blue-gray skin discoloration is a common sign of Amiodarone toxicity, known as blue-gray discoloration, which can affect areas like the face, neck, or hands. It is important to monitor for this side effect, as it can be a visible indicator of potential toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Light yellow urine is not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Tinnitus is not a common manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity. A productive cough is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.

4. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

5. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

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