ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
- B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
- C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
- D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.
2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.
3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?
- A. Swelling of the ankles.
- B. Increased urination.
- C. Persistent cough.
- D. Dark-colored urine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.
4. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?
- A. Antiplatelets
- B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.
5. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?
- A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered as needed.
- B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment.
- C. The client's dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels.
- D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be initiated at a low dose and titrated gradually over several weeks to achieve therapeutic levels. This approach helps to minimize the risk of adverse effects, particularly in older adult clients who may be more sensitive to medication changes. Starting at a low dose allows for close monitoring of the client's response and adjustment of the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose can increase the risk of adverse effects and is not the recommended approach. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the initial dosage throughout the treatment may not achieve optimal therapeutic levels. Choice C is incorrect because adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not the standard practice for initiating Levothyroxine treatment.
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