Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring the client's heart rate regularly is essential to detect and manage toxicity promptly. Choice B, Hypertension, is incorrect as Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia and not hypertension. Choices C and D, Hypoglycemia and Hypercalcemia, are also incorrect as they are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Standing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.

4. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug name ends in the suffix -navir, it indicates that the drug is a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are commonly used in antiviral therapy to treat infections by inhibiting viral replication. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Protease inhibitor.

5. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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