ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.
2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.
3. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Extremity paresthesias
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Severe constipation
- D. Complex partial seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.
4. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- B. I will take this medication at bedtime.
- C. I will take this medication with a high-fat meal.
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should monitor their blood pressure regularly to ensure the medication is effectively managing their condition. Monitoring blood pressure helps in assessing the drug's effectiveness and identifying any potential side effects that may influence blood pressure levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Atenolol at bedtime, with a high-fat meal, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not recommended actions associated with this medication and do not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching.
5. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Decreased libido
- D. B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.
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