ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.
2. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.
3. How do ACE inhibitors work?
- A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
- B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
- C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.
4. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
5. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
- B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
- C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
- D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.
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