Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
• B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
• C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
• D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.

2. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

• A. Morphine
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Hydromorphone
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

3. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

4. A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning.
• B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Chew the tablet and mix it with applesauce if swallowing is difficult.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to minimize the chance of esophageal irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning. This is important to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Choice B is also correct as remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate tablets should not be chewed or mixed with any other substance. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medication at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down after ingestion.

5. A client is prescribed Amitriptyline for depression. What should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Expect therapeutic effects in 1-3 weeks.
• B. Discontinue the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision.
• C. Change positions slowly to minimize dizziness.
• D. Increase dietary fiber intake to prevent constipation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Changing positions slowly can help prevent orthostatic hypotension, a common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline. It is essential to educate the client to avoid sudden position changes to minimize the risk of dizziness and falls. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The therapeutic effects of Amitriptyline may not be noticeable for 1-3 weeks, so expecting them in 24 to 48 hours (choice A) is unrealistic. Discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under healthcare provider supervision, so choice B is incorrect. Amitriptyline can actually cause constipation, so increasing dietary fiber intake would be recommended to prevent constipation, making choice D incorrect.

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