a nurse is providing instruction to a client who has a new prescription for calcitonin salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.

2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

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