Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic use of Albuterol?

• A. Bronchodilation
• B. Anti-coagulant
• C. Anti-arrhythmic
• D. Proton-pump inhibitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bronchodilation. Albuterol is primarily used for bronchodilation, where it relaxes the muscles in the airways to make breathing easier. This medication is commonly prescribed for conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and other respiratory conditions where bronchodilation is beneficial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Albuterol is not used as an anti-coagulant, anti-arrhythmic, or proton-pump inhibitor.

2. When administering the drug senna to a patient, what must a health care provider inform the patient of?

• A. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensives
• B. This drug is not intended for long-term use
• C. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake
• D. Advise the patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Senna is a laxative used for short-term relief of constipation, not for long-term use. Choice A is incorrect because senna does not lower blood pressure or require combination with antihypertensives. Choice C is unrelated as there is no need to limit fiber intake with senna. Choice D is incorrect as orthostatic hypotension is not a common concern with senna use.

3. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

5. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect your urine to turn orange.
• D. Avoid prolonged sunlight exposure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.

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