Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

2. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.

3. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

4. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

• A. Kidney
• B. Liver
• C. Blood
• D. Heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin primarily affects the liver where it inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors.

5. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

• A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Seizures
• D. Vision Loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

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