ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication orally.
- B. Massage the injection site after administration.
- C. Insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously at a 45- to 90-degree angle. This angle ensures proper delivery of the medication. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising and possible tissue damage. Aspiration is not required for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Therefore, the correct action for administering Enoxaparin is to insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
- A. Nausea
- B. Flushed appearance
- C. Vertigo
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.
3. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubule
- B. Loop of Henle
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Distal convoluted tubule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.
4. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
5. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Morphine
- C. Aspirin (ASA)
- D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.
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