a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for levofloxacin which of the following instructions should the nur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client has a new prescription for Levofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Levofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. It is recommended to take Levofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as Levofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is not necessary information for taking Levofloxacin. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of Levofloxacin.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.

3. When teaching a client how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment for angina, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new dose. This helps prevent toxicity by ensuring the client does not inadvertently apply an excessive amount of nitroglycerin.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

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