Nursing Elites

1. A child is prescribed Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to be administered every 12 hr. The child weighs 44 lb. The available medication is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given per dose?

• A. 4 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 3 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: Convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of amoxicillin suspension per dose. Choice B, 5 mL, is incorrect because the calculation shows that 4 mL is the correct dose. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they are not in line with the calculated dosage based on the weight of the child and the concentration of the medication.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

3. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count.

4. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.

5. A client is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating broccoli.
• B. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• C. I will take aspirin for headaches.
• D. I will have my blood tested regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin along with Warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Clients should be advised to avoid medications that increase the risk of bleeding when taking Warfarin to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in Vitamin K, using an electric razor to prevent cuts that can lead to bleeding, and regular blood testing to monitor Warfarin levels are all important aspects of managing Warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions