Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

3. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

4. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Seizures
• C. Angioedema
• D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?

• A. Cushing’s disease
• B. Testicular cancer
• C. Lymphomas
• D. Chronic leukemias

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.

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