which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

2. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.

3. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.

4. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if one tablet does not relieve Anginal pain after waiting 5 minutes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where Anginal pain persists after taking one sublingual tablet and waiting 5 minutes, it is crucial to call emergency services (911) immediately. This could indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack) rather than a typical Anginal attack. The client should not take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously without seeking immediate medical help as this could delay appropriate intervention if the pain is due to a heart attack. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule is not recommended for immediate relief of acute Anginal pain as it works too slowly. Waiting another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet is not appropriate if the pain persists, as prompt action is essential in suspected heart-related issues.

5. A client has a prescription for Erythromycin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.' Erythromycin is known to cause Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, which can be severe. Instructing the client to report any persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Erythromycin with food is generally recommended to reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most critical instruction. Expecting urine to turn dark yellow is not a common side effect of Erythromycin. Taking Erythromycin with a full glass of milk is not necessary and may not be appropriate for all clients, especially those with lactose intolerance or dairy allergies.

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