which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

2. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Pamidronate to a client who has bone pain related to cancer. Which of the following precautions should the healthcare professional take when administering pamidronate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is administered through intravenous (IV) infusion. As this medication can be irritating to veins, the healthcare professional should carefully assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during administration to prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via intradermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the administration of Pamidronate. Choice D is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered intramuscularly.

4. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

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