which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

3. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

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