Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

2. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

3. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic known to cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia by assessing their electrolyte levels. Choice B, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is more likely to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Choice C, Hypercalcemia, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause increased calcium levels. Choice D, Hypoglycemia, is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide.

4. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.

5. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

Similar Questions