ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
- B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
- C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
- D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina is an indicator of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots that could lead to angina episodes or more severe cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because troponin levels, heart rhythm, and blood pressure are not direct indicators of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events.
2. A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a non-hairy area.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
- D. Do not cut the patch to adjust the dosage.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.
3. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
- B. Check your temperature daily.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Add extra calories to your diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
- B. Change the IV infusion site.
- C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
- D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.
5. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Assess for bone pain.
- B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
- C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
- D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.
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