a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for combination oral nrtis for treatment of hiv which of the following

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

2. What is the antidote for Heparin?

A. Atropine
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

A. 22 gtt/min
B. 24 gtt/min
C. 20 gtt/min
D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Losartan, which instruction should the nurse provide?

A. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
C. Take this medication with food.
D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of dehydration when taking Losartan. Losartan can lead to dehydration, so it is crucial for the client to watch out for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, and reduced urine output. Monitoring for these signs can help prevent complications associated with dehydration while taking this medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Losartan is not known to have interactions with grapefruit juice, does not require a specific amount of water for intake, and can be taken with or without food.

5. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Thromboembolic stroke
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.