ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.
2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods rich in potassium.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Weigh yourself daily.
- D. Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stand up slowly to minimize orthostatic hypotension.' Clients prescribed furosemide are at risk for orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Advising the client to stand up slowly can help prevent this complication. Instructing the client to avoid rapid position changes decreases the likelihood of dizziness or fainting episodes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, taking the medication with food, or daily weighing as specific instructions.
3. A client is prescribed Propranolol for a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Hold Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min.
- B. Administer Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assist the client with sitting up or standing after taking this medication.
- D. Monitor the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol is to assist the client when sitting up or standing after taking the medication. Propranolol can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness upon sudden position changes. It is essential to help the client with position changes to prevent falls or injury. Holding Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min (Choice A) is incorrect because Propranolol is often used to manage dysrhythmias and slowing down the heart rate. Administering Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is not the primary indication for using this medication. Monitoring the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity (Choice D) is not a direct effect of Propranolol; rather, it is more related to other medications like diuretics.
4. When teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily.
- B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night.
- C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax.
- D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, the nurse should instruct the client to tip the head to the side to allow water to drain out after showering or swimming. This helps to prevent moisture buildup in the ear canal, reducing the risk of developing Otitis Externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear.
5. While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?
- A. Light yellow urine
- B. Report of tinnitus
- C. Productive cough
- D. Blue-gray skin discoloration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.
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