Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
• B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
• C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
• D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.

2. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Atropine
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Calcium carbonate
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV to a client. Available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 4 mg from a solution of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare professional should administer 0.4 mL. The calculation is done by dividing the desired dose (4 mg) by the concentration of the solution (10 mg/mL), which equals 0.4 mL. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it is half of the correct calculation. Choice C (0.6 mL) is incorrect because it is 50% more than the correct calculation. Choice D (0.8 mL) is incorrect because it exceeds the correct calculation.

4. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

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