Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

• A. Leucovorin reduces the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate.
• B. Leucovorin increases platelet production and prevents bleeding.
• C. Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate.
• D. Leucovorin protects healthy cells from Methotrexate's toxic effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

2. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

3. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

4. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

5. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone) for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. Administering the beta2-agonist before the glucocorticoid helps promote bronchodilation and enhances the absorption of the glucocorticoid, maximizing its effectiveness in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol is usually taken as needed for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not necessarily at the same time each day. Choice C is incorrect as beclomethasone is a controller medication used for long-term asthma management, not for acute episodes. Choice D is incorrect as shaking the beclomethasone inhaler before use helps ensure proper medication dispersion for effective inhalation.

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