Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
• B. Swallow the medication whole.
• C. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• D. Expect nasal bleeding with this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a client about Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis, the nurse should include instructions to inject the medication subcutaneously or administer it intranasally. Option A is incorrect because Calcitonin-Salmon is not typically administered intramuscularly. Option B is incorrect because it is not meant to be swallowed. Option D is incorrect as nasal bleeding is not an expected side effect with this medication.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
• C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
• D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

4. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of fiber while on this medication.
• D. Avoid taking the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen is to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication. Combining medications containing Acetaminophen can lead to exceeding the maximum recommended dose and increase the risk of liver toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of not taking extra Acetaminophen while on this prescription to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Oxycodone/Acetaminophen on an empty stomach is not necessary; increasing fiber intake is not directly related to this medication, and avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not a specific concern associated with this prescription.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.

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