Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

2. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect potential toxicity early and prevent complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

4. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. This recommendation helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with this medication. Food can help minimize nausea and other stomach-related issues that may occur when taking Levodopa/Carbidopa. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of protein-rich foods is not necessary with this medication. Muscle twitching is not an expected side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Anticipating relief of manifestations in 24 hours is unrealistic as it may take days to weeks for the full therapeutic effect of the medication to be achieved.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor for and report to the provider?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Pedal edema
• C. Bruising
• D. Yellow-tinged vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of digoxin, which may indicate toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any further complications. Dry cough is not typically associated with digoxin use. Pedal edema is a common symptom of heart failure, which digoxin is prescribed to manage. Bruising is not a common adverse effect of digoxin.

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