Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 22 gtt/min
• B. 24 gtt/min
• C. 20 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

4. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The client should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, is a potential side effect of spironolactone, and ingesting additional potassium from salt substitutes can exacerbate this risk.

5. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.

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